1.	It is estimated that approximately ______ of police contacts may involved mentally disturbed persons. A. One tenth B. One fourth C. One half D. Three fourths

2.	Mental illness and mental retardation mean the same. A. True B. False

3.	It is easy to seperate "normal" from "abnormal". A. True B. False

4.	An abnormally high, expansive, irritated mood along with an inflated self esteem, excessive risk taking and racing thoughts are associated with: A. Psyochosis B. Mania C. Depression D. Schizophrenia

5.	A ______ is an extremely violent sociopath who experiences destructive episodes. A. Psychopath B. Manic/depressive C. Schizophreniz D. None of the above

6.	The number one consideration in handling mentally ill and mentally disturbed is ______. A. Avoiding excitement B. Careful handling C. Quick action D. Safety

7.	If you are called to the scene of a mentally disturbed person you should: A. Take very quick action to surprise the person B. Exhibit a "show of force" C. Take your time and plan your action D. Take control by immediate action and commands

8.	A mentally retarded person should be treated the same as a mentally disturbed person. A. True B. False

9.	A mentally retarded person can be a good witness. A. True B. False

10.	A mentally retarded person cannot "knowingly and willingly" waive his Miranda rights. A. True B. False

11.	A major defense mechanism which "kicks in" to protect a person from violent crime or grief is _______________. A. denial B. rejection C. fatigue

12.	Early stages of grief include shock, emotion, and depression. This is many times followed by _______________. A. physical distress B. panic and guilt C. hostility and reaffirmation of reality D. a and b E. all of these are stages which may be experienced

13.	Crisis reaction occurs when a person is exposed to trauma stress, which is defined as an event that is outside the range of usual human experience and would be be markedly distressing to anyone. A. True B. False

14.	"Frozen flight" is physical shock, disorientation, and numbness. A. True B. False

15.	Adrenaline charges the body, some physical senses become acute while others may "shut down", heart rate increases, and one hyperventilates. This is evidence of ________________. A. frozen flight syndrome B. fight or flight syndrome C. frozen fight syndrome

16.	In situations manifesting the fight or flight syndrome, the person is able to maintain this condition for extended periods of time. A. True B. False

17.	Trauma causes damage in human life, including all but ____________. A. a control over one's life and trust in people/God B. a sense of fairness, self-worth, and loved ones C. a sense of immortality/vulnerability D. a and c E. all these are potential losses

18.	Can trauma be so overwhelming as to cause a person to regress to childhood? A. Yes B. No

19.	People cannot recover from severe trauma on their own. A. True B. False

20.	Formal treatment is important, but of no less importance in most cases than the "informal" support of a person's friends, co-workers, and loved ones. A. True B. False

21.	Recovery from severe trauma may be effected by the severity of the event, the ability to understand what happened, the supportive environment, and personally validating or accepting that it was terrible and some trouble is perfectly normal. A. True B. False

22.	Long-term crisis reaction involves the re-living/experiencing the trauma after considerable time has elapsed. All victims seem to have this occur. A. True B. False

23.	Crisis reactions after a long period are normally in response to a trigger event, which may include some sensory recollection (smell, touch, sound, etc.), anniversary of the event, seeing the assailant, going to trials, and even seeing media coverage of the event. A. True B. False

24.

The individual who experiences a reaction in excess of that normal to the average person, one which effects both the physical and psychological health of the person, is probably suffering from _____________. A. excessive trauma reaction B. hypertensive reaction syndrome C. post-traumatic stress disorder

25.	If one suffers from psychogenic amnesia, feels detached, senses a shortened future, and has recurrent difficulty sleeping or concentrating, or burts of anger/hypervigilance, it is symptomatic of post-traumatic disorder. A. True B. False

26.	Can the activity/actions of the media, criminal justice system, or service workers cause a secondary victimization reaction in a victim? A. yes, these exacerbate, making a "secondary assault'. B. no, these are not severe enough to trigger such a reaction

27.	If possible, approach a hazardous material incident from: A. upwind B. crosswind C. downwind D. sun in your face

28.	Use the table of placards only if you have not been able to: A. identify the material in transport by ID number or name B. contact Chemtric C. contact the national response center D. contact OSHA

29.	When unable to be moved, the protecting-in-place of citizens should always be: A. a last resort B. a first consideration C. use the numbered guide D. use the table of placcards

30.	Any situation in which a hazardous material is or may be released into the environment is: A. a material spill B. a hazardous material event C. none of the above D. both A and B

31.	The effects of a hazardous materials event could be: A. budget strain B. personnel injury C. equipment damage D. all of the above

32.	Shipping papers on a load of a hazardous material do not have to be carried in the vehicle as long as the transport vehicle is displaying properly marked placards: A. true B. false

33.	The shipping papers on a load of hazardous materials can be located anywhere in the vehicle: A. true B. false

34.	Hazardous material incident first responders should know Chemtric, which: A. is the Chemical Transportation Emergency Center B. is not a service of the Chemical Manufacturer's Association C. operates around the clock to receive toll-free calls D. both A and C

35.	The first step for any protective action is to: A. isolate hazard area and deny entry B. review the International Classification System C. use the numbered guide D. use the table of placards

36.	How much protection do police uniforms give against hazardous materials? A. excellent protection B. acceptable protection C. almost no protection D. no protection at all

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