1.
Your pulse equals heartbeats per minute and can be felt and counted in one of six pulsation points. The two most often used for pulse counting are on the:
A.
brachial artery and radius artery
B.
carotid artery and radial artery
C.
radial artery and coronary artery
D.
coronary artery and carotid artery
2.
Physical fitness can be divided into two categories; health related and ____ related.
A.
strength
B.
endurance
C.
mental
D.
motor
1.1.1
3.
The "Wellness Pyramid" is capped by:
A.
self-responsibility
B.
stress management
C.
smoking cessation
D.
exercise
1.1.1
4.
The foundation on which the "Wellness Pyramid" is build is:
A.
smoking cessation and weight control
B.
smoking cessation and stress management
C.
regular exercise and proper nutrition
D.
regular exercise and weight control
5.
Wellness varies in degrees, ranging from death to:
A.
physical fitness
B.
optimal well-being
C.
optimal physical fitness
D.
positive well-being
6.
Total well-being translates into the practice of _____ and ______.
A.
exercise, nutrition
B.
physical exercise, good hygiene
C.
positive lifestyle behaviors, good health habits
D.
cardiovascular exercise, isometric exercise
7.
When a person who holds a commission license or certificate is arrested, charged, or indicted for a criminal offense above the grade of Class C misdemeanor or for any Class C misdemeanor involving the duties and responsibilities of office or family violence, that person must report such fact to the commission in writing within
A.
30 days
B.
60 days,
C.
90 days,
D.
1 year
2.1.4
8.
Under 217.1. Minimum Standards for Initial Licensure a person must ______________.
A.
be 21 years of age
B.
at least 18 years of age
C.
have a 4 year degree
D.
2 years of college
2.1.4
9.
The commission shall issue an appropriate license to a person who, as required by Sec. 1701.307. ISSUANCE OF LICENSE
A.
submits an application, completes the required training, passes the required examination
B.
completes the required training, passes the required examination, receives notification by mail
C.
submits an application, passes the required examination, receives notification by mail
D.
completes the required training, passes the required examination, receives notification by fax
2.1.4
10.
Under Sec. 1701.304.(Occupational code) EXAMINATION, the commission shall:
A.
prescribe the content of an examination for each type of license
B.
include in each examination a written examination that tests the applicant's knowledge of the appropriate occupation
C.
prescribe standards for acceptable performance on each examination
D.
all of the above
11.
A firearms proficiency officer designated by an agency will to be responsible for the documentation of annual firearms proficiency. The documentation for each officer shall include:
A.
date of qualification; firearm manufacturer, model; results of qualifying; course(s) of fire
B.
date of qualification; identification of officer; firearm manufacturer, model; course(s) of fire
C.
date of qualification; identification of officer; firearm manufacturer, model; results of qualifying; course(s) of fire.
D.
date of qualification; identification of officer; firearm manufacturer, model; results of qualifying; location of the course
12.
A minimum standard for the annual handguns firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule- 217.21 shall be:
A.
a minimum of 25 rounds
B.
a minimum of 50 rounds
C.
a minimum of 100 rounds
D.
a minimum of 150 rounds
2.1.4
13.
The minimum standards for the annual handguns firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule- 217.21 shall
A.
include the wearing of hat for protection
B.
include two magazine changes
C.
include at least one timed reload
D.
include at least two timed reloads
14.
A minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule- 217.21 shotgun qualifications shall include:
A.
a minimum of five rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 10 yards
B.
a minimum of five rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 15 yards
C.
a minimum of ten rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 15 yards
D.
a minimum of ten rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 25 yards
2.1.4
15.
49 During the annual s firearms proficiency course under Rule- 217.21, fully automatic weapons ammunition shall be fired at ranges from _______ to _________
A.
point-blank to at least 15 yards
B.
7 feet to at least 10 yards
C.
7 yards to at least 10 yards
D.
10 yards to 20 yards
2.1.4
16.
The minimum passing percentage for annual firearms proficiency course of fire shall be:
A.
65 % for each weapon
B.
70% for each weapon
C.
70%
D.
80%
2.14
17.
"The state or quality of mind or spirit that enables one to face danger with self-possession, confidence, and resolution" is the definition of:
A.
Professionalism
B.
Ethical integrity
C.
Objectivity
D.
Courage
3.2.3
18.
"The expression or use of facts without distortion by personal feelings or prejudices" is the definition of:
A.
Professionalism
B.
Ethical Integrity
C.
Objectivity
D.
Courage
3.2.2
19.
An off-duty officer in his personal vehicle commits a minor law violation (such as a running a stop sign). Assuming you were the officer who stopped him, and that you had already written two other violators that day for the same violation, what action should be taken against this officer?
A.
The officer should be given a warning only, since this is an example of "professional courtesy".
B.
The officer should be issued a citation for running the stop sign.
C.
The violation should be overlooked to avoid problems between officers.
D.
The officer's supervisor should be notified, since police officers are expected to obey all laws.
3.2.2
20.
The First Amendment to the Constitution prohibits:
A.
the government from establishing a religion
B.
assemblies that stop traffic
C.
petitions to the government other than to senators and representatives
D.
speech that interferes with national security
4.1.6
21.
The Fourth Amendment:
A.
establishes the separation of powers
B.
provides for the writ of habeas corpus
C.
protects citizens from unreasonable searches
D.
protects citizens from being compelled to be a witness against themselves
4.1.5
22.
The Fifth Amendment provides which of the following protections?
A.
freedom of the press
B.
freedom from double jeopardy
C.
probable cause for arrests
D.
right to a jury trial
4.1.6
23.
The Sixth Amendment:
A.
gives the right to confront witnesses
B.
established the police powers of the state
C.
established the "due process" doctrine
D.
provides the right to bail
4.1.7
24.
The amendment that provides that all the rights and liberties of the Bill of Rights will be accorded to citizens of the states and the states must abide by the first ten amendments is the:
A.
seventh amendment
B.
ninth amendment
C.
eleventh amendment
D.
fourteenth amendment
4.1.9
25.
Which amendment gives citizens the right to an attorney during criminal proceedings?
A.
fourth amendment
B.
fifth amendment
C.
sixth amendment
D.
tenth amendment
4.1.7
26.
Which amendment prohibits cruel and unusual punishment?
A.
fourth amendment
B.
fifth amendment
C.
sixth amendment
D.
eighth amendment
4.1.8
27.
Which amendment gives citizens the right to a speedy and public trial?
A.
fourth
B.
fifth
C.
sixth
D.
tenth
4.1.7
28.
Which constitutional amendment contains the due process clause?
A.
fourth
B.
fifth
C.
sixth
D.
eighth
4.1.6
29.
Which of the following Amendments does not directly address criminal justice issues?
A.
third
B.
fourth
C.
fifth
D.
sixth
4.1.4
30.
The Fourth Amendment:
A.
states that the right to privacy is so sacred that under no circumstances can it be violated
B.
guarantees that evidence seized illegally by authorities cannot be used against suspects in a court of law
C.
protects citizens from unnecessary intrusions by government into their private affairs
D.
all of the above are included
4.1.5
31.
Which of the following is an element of the fifth amendment?
A.
the right of the people to be secure in their person, houses, papers and effects
B.
not to be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law
C.
the right to have the assistance of counsel
D.
protection from cruel punishment
4.1.6
32.
The Texas Dept. of Criminal Justice is a function of which component of the Criminal Justice System?
A.
police
B.
courts
C.
correctional system
D.
executive branch
5.1.1
33.
A Municipal Court is a function of the ______ component of the Criminal Justice System.
A.
police
B.
courts
C.
correctional system
D.
legislative
5.1.1
34.
The purpose of ______ is preventing harm to society.
A.
criminal law
B.
civil law
C.
torts
D.
contracts
5.1.3
35.
One of the purposes of ______ is to prevent a wrong against an individual.
A.
criminal law
B.
civil law
C.
the penal code
D.
probation and parole
5.1.3
36.
The criminal justice system is made up of three components. These three components are:
A.
the police, courts, and correctional system
B.
the police, probation, and judicial system
C.
law enforcement, probation, and corrections
D.
civil, criminal , and torts
5.1.5
37.
Special investigators have what powers under State law?
A.
the same powers as a Texas peace officer
B.
powers of arrest, search and seizure are limited to felonies
C.
they may only enforce federal laws
D.
none of these apply
6.2.2
38.
The Texas Supreme Court handles what type of cases?
A.
civil
B.
criminal
C.
both civil and criminal
6.3.1
39.
County courts have jurisdiction in what type of cases?
A.
offenses punishable by fine less than $500
B.
offenses punishable by fine over $500
C.
felonies
D.
all misdemeanors
6.3.5
40.
Municipal courts have jurisdiction in what type of cases?
A.
class C misdemeanors
B.
class A and B misdemeanors
C.
felonies
D.
all misdemeanors
6.3.7
41.
A primary duty of a peace officer who responds to a call involving family is to:
A.
protect potential victims
B.
enforce the law
C.
make lawful arrests of violators
D.
all of these are primary duties
6.4.1
42.
According to the CCP article 12.01, the statue of limitations for manslaughter is:
A.
2 years
B.
5 years
C.
10 years
D.
no limitation
6.5.1
43.
The statute of limitations for misdemeanors is:
A.
2 years
B.
3 years
C.
5 years
D.
10 years
6.5.2
44.
A peace officer's authority to arrest without warrant is found in the:
A.
Code of Criminal Procedure
B.
Penal Code
C.
Black's law dictionary
D.
Authority to arrest will be found in all these
6.6.1
45.
A magistrate can verbally order an arrest for:
A.
a felony when probable cause exists
B.
any crime committed in the magistrate's presence
C.
a felony or breach of the peace committed in the magistrate's presence
D.
any offense when the magistrate determines there is sufficient probable cause.
6.6.1
46.
A peace officer or any other person may arrest without a warrant for:
A.
any offense committed within their presence or view
B.
a felony or breach of the peace committed within their presence or view.
C.
a felony or breach of the peace when probable cause exists
D.
any offense authorized by a magistrate
6.6.1
47.
In making a warrantless arrest, an officer can enter a residence if:
A.
exigent circumstances
B.
he has reason to believe the suspect is there
C.
the offense is a felony
D.
he announces his presence and refused entry
6.6.1
48.
Who may serve an arrest warrant?
A.
any peace officer
B.
any peace officer or person
C.
only a county peace officer
D.
any peace officer or specifically named person
6.6.2
49.
An arrest warrant must be served within how many days of it's issuance?
A.
3 days
B.
2 years
C.
the date specified on the warrant
D.
none of these are correct
6.6.2
50.
The parts of a warrant include:
A.
affidavit, complaint, and warrant
B.
complaint and warrant
C.
complaint, warrant and return
D.
warrant, return and inventory
51.
An arrest warrant issued by the county clerk is good:
A.
anywhere in the State
B.
in the county of it's issuance
C.
anywhere if endorsed by a judge in the county where it is to be served
D.
a clerk can't issue an arrest warrant
6.6.2
52.
When must an officer show a defendant the warrant he is arrested on?
A.
the defendant never has the right to see the warrant
B.
at the time of the arrest
C.
as soon as is possible, if requested
D.
immediately
6.6.2
53.
When may an officer break down a door, in order to serve an arrest warrant?
A.
never
B.
when serving a felony warrant
C.
in a felony case, if the officer is refused entry after advising his authority and purpose
D.
for any offense with reason to believe the defendant is inside
6.6.2
54.
Who may execute a search warrant for criminal evidence?
A.
only a peace officer
B.
any peace officer or a person specifically named
C.
any other person if a peace officer cannot be found
D.
any of these
6.7.1
55.
A search warrant cannot be issued to:
A.
photograph an injured child
B.
seize mere evidence
C.
seize personal writings of the accused
D.
seize persons
6.7.1
56.
A search warrant is valid for how many days?
A.
2
B.
3
C.
4
D.
5
6.7.1
57.
Who may execute a Capias?
A.
any peace officer or any person specifically named
B.
any peace officer
C.
a peace officer in the county of issue only
D.
all of these
6.8.2
58.
Who conducts an inquest into the cause of death?
A.
a peace officer
B.
a licensed physician
C.
a justice of the peace
D.
all of these may conduct the inquest
6.9.1
59.
The order signed by the proper magistrate directing a sheriff to receive and place in jail the person so committed is called:
A.
warrant
B.
capias
C.
commitment
D.
bond forfeiture
6.8.6
60.
The amount of bail required in a case is to be regulated by which person taking the bail?
A.
peace officer
B.
court
C.
magistrate
D.
any of these may regulate the amount of bail
6.8.7
61.
The right of all persons to prevent the consequences of theft by seizing stolen property can be found in:
A.
CCP article 14.01
B.
CCP article 14.04
C.
CCP article 14.03
D.
CCP article 18.16
62.
The maximum time a protective order can remain valid is:
A.
1 year
B.
2 years
C.
any time so designated by the attorneys
D.
the time pending dissolution of the marriage
6.4.1
63.
Municipal courts have what type of jurisdiction in cases arising under city ordinances?