1. The key to being successful in cross examination is being __________ and able to __________ the next question.
A.Well dressed/guess
B.Rude to the defense attorney/sarcastically answer
C.Prepared/anticipate
D.Organized/quash
33.11.2


2. Which of the following is an important rule for testifying in court?
A.never get angry on the witness stand
B.attempt to frustrate the defense attorney
C.impress the jury by answering questions using police lingo
D.shave before going to court
33.11.5


3. It is important that an officer learn to ignore insults, badgering, and innuendoes when testifying in court.
A.True
B.False
33.11.5


4. Which of the following is NOT one of the Basic Rules of Testifying?
A.Honesty
B.Brevity
C.Objectivity
D.Emotional control
E.All of the above are basic rules of testifying
33.11.5


5. When testifying in court, you should treat both the defense and prosecuting attorneys the same.
A.True
B.False
33.11.9


6. You should be prepared for attempts by the defense attorney to distort your statements or lead you into giving conflicting testimony when testifying in court.
A.True
B.False
33.11.8


7. When unsure of the answer to a question, the officer testifying should reply:
A.I object
B.I don't remember
C.Don't ask me
D.None of your business
E.All of the above are appropriate replies
33.11.6


8. Which of the following does NOT demonstrate the value of a case folder?
A.It prevents the duplication of work
B.It is useful when consulting with the prosecutor and/or grand jury.
C.It replaces the officers own notes on the case
D.It makes the officer and the agency look efficient
33.11.1


9. What documentary information should be left out of the case folder?
A.The original report made from the officer's field notes
B.Photographs of the crime scene
C.Diagrams of the crime scene
D.The officer's field notes
E.All of the above should be included in the case folder
33.11.2


10. An officer is guilty of pestering a witness if he interviews that witness prior to the start of a trial.
A.True
B.False
33.11.1


11. After the Prosecutor finishes their initial questioning, the Defense will begin_________by asking their initial questions.
A.direct examination
B.cross examination
C.redirect examination
D.recross examination
33.11.4


12. In the event that a defense counsel objects to a question which the prosecutor has presented to you, you should:
A.immediately object to the question yourself
B.refuse to answer the question
C.remain silent until the court has ruled on the objection
D.immediately answer the question
33.11.9


13. The most common method for obtaining warrants and wanted information from other jurisdictions on the prisoner you are booking is:
A.Telephone calls to other agencies
B.The TCIC/NCIC system
C.Your own records division
D.None of the above


14. Which of the following is a reason for searching a prisoner during the booking procedure?
A.Safeguarding the prisoners personal property
B.Inmate security
C.Security of the facility
D.All of the above


15. You should __________ refer to precious metals or gems by their proper names when describing a prisoners property on a booking form.
A.Always
B.Never
C.Sometimes
D.All of the above
E.None of the above appropriately answer the question


16.
R-1 5.3.1D

Which of the following would not be considered as standard personal information to be included on a booking form?
A.Nickname(s)
B.Tattoos or scars
C.Sexual preference (and name of partner)
D.Marital status (and name of spouse)
E.All of the above should be included



17. Which of the following types of impressions are recorded on a fingerprint card?
A.Rolled
B.Straight
C.Plain
D.Single
E.Both A & C


18. Which of the following is not a result to be gained by the booking process?
A.Contraband will not be introduced into the jail facility
B.The personal property of every prisoner is safeguarded until their release from jail
C.The safety of the prisoner and persons already in jail is protected
D.Appropriate bonds for the alleged offense(s) are secured
E.None of the above answer this question


19. It is important that you carefully describe the clothing of a prisoner when he is being booked into jail.
A.True
B.False


20. A statement made by the accused who is unable to write must bear his mark and the mark must be witnessed by: (Sec V,E,2,d)
A.A person other than a peace officer
B.A peace officer
C.A Notary Public
D.Anyone can witness


21. Oral confessions are not allowed in evidence against the accused unless they meet which of the following rules:
A.The oral statement is recorded electronically
B.The accused is given the "Miranda" warning during the recording, prior to making the statement
C.all voices on the recording are identified
D.All of the above are necessary if a confession is recorded


22. Generally speaking, oral statements of the accused, even if not recorded, may be used in evidence to impeach the accused should the accused take the stand in his defense.
A.True
B.False


23. An __________ is the systematic questioning of a person who has knowledge relevant to a criminal investigation.
A.inspection
B.interview
C.interrogation
D.inquisition


24. An __________ is the systematic questioning of a criminal suspect for the primary purpose of obtaining an admission of guilt.
A.inspection
B.interview
C.interrogation
D.inquisition


25. Witnesses should be separated from each other so that one witness's statement is not __________ by another witness.
A.ridiculed
B.contradicted
C.judged
D.influenced


26. When conducting an interview, it is important that:
A.you handle complainants and witnesses differently than suspects
B.that you interview witnesses in the presence of known suspects
C.not warn suspects of their rights while questioning them
D.immediately put everything in writing that someone says


27. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning interviews?
A.you should obtain as much information as possible at the scene
B.ask questions that establish the validity of what a witness or suspect says
C.remove or reduce any distractions for the person being interviewed
D.hide any discrepancies or falsehoods from them so that this can be used later in court to impeach their testimony


28. A statement of an accused may only be used against them if:
A.it was made freely
B.it was made voluntarily
C.it was made freely and voluntarily without compulsion
D.it was material to the offense they are accused of committing


29. If you discover discrepancies in the interview of any person, you should:
A.make note of this in your report
B.make note of this in the statement that they sign
C.confront them with the discrepancies and allow them to explain or retract them
D.do nothing; it is not important for you to do anything during the interview except take notes or record it


30. If during the course of an interview a person becomes a suspect, you should:
A.continue the interview and simply note that the person is now a suspect
B.stop the interview and advise the person of their rights
C.stop, start all over again, but first advise the person of their rights
D.take the person immediately before a magistrate and have him advise the person of their rights


31. Which of the following is NOT an objective in conducting a crime scene search?
A.Determining what crime was committed
B.Determining how the crime was committed
C.obtaining written statements from possible witnesses
D.determine the who, how, when, and why the crime was committed


32. Which of the following is the worst method of searching?
A.Point to point
B.Strip
C.Quadrant
D.circular (or spiral)
E.Area


33. The primary objective of the first officer to arrive at a crime scene is (assuming the injured have been cared for):
A.Gather Evidence
B.Talk to witnesses
C.Protect the scene
D.Speak with the media


34. One way to insure whether you were the person who collected evidence is to:
A.Describe its appearance
B.Try to remember its appearance
C.Mark it with your initials and the case number
D.Take pictures of it


35. Crime scenes may be secured by using:
A.Rope
B.Street barricades
C."Police Line" tape
D.All of the above


36. What types of evidence would you usually look for at a burglary crime scene ?
A.Fingerprints & tools used in the offense
B.Missing children
C.Weapons & bloodstains
D.Hairs & fibers


37. When would additional personnel NOT be summoned to assist in a crime scene search?
A.The crime lab is going to respond utilizing the expertise of the technicians
B.There are numerous pieces of evidence scattered over a large area
C.Livestock is involved
D.When the physical characteristics of the area make it impractical for one person to search


38. In determining which searching method to use, which of the following should NOT be considered.
A.The size and type of area
B.Who is in charge of the scene
C.The degree of thoroughness required in the search
D.the potential of recovering any evidence


39. The process which records transactions of evidence from person-to-person once it is acquired by a law enforcement agency is the:
A.point-to-point path of evidence
B.chain-of-custody
C.offense report
D.logging of evidence at the property office


40. Quadrant searches are commonly used in ____________ searches.
A.indoor
B.outdoor
C.both indoor and outdoor
D.aerial


41. When implementing a search, you should NOT:
A.Determine a starting point
B.Assemble and brief the personnel involved
C.Conduct the search as quickly as possible
D.Maintain communications with all searchers
E.Assign areas of responsibility to searchers


42. A crime scene sketch is a drawing which represents the crime scene and supplements _____________.
A.The suspect's location
B.The chain of custody
C.The crime scene photography
D.The officer's notes


43. In taking crime scene measurements, you should:
A.Use an adequate measuring device
B.Obtain enough measurements to accurately represent the scene
C.Take accurate measurements
D.All of the above


44. A crime scene sketch should NOT include:
A.An arrow indicating north
B.A legend to explain symbols
C.Measurements or scale
D.The search method used
E.A title or some type of indicator


45. The most commonly used type of sketch is a:
A.Perspective sketch
B.Nude sketch
C.Projection sketch
D.Detailed sketch


46. The purpose of proper evidence packaging is:
A.To prevent the chain of custody from being broken
B.To supplement the crime scene sketch
C.To prevent breakage or contamination of evidence
D.To prevent blood or body fluids from running out of the package


47. Which of the following would NOT be a procedure to taken upon arrival at a crime scene?
A.apply verbal skills to determine who is a victim or witness
B.determine if suspects are near or still at the scene by observing unusual activity or persons as you approach the scene
C.use the appropriate tactical action, or request backup, if the offense is still in progress or suspects are still at the scene
D.gather witnesses together in one area and question them so that each will assist the other in remembering exactly what happened


48. A Hazardous Material Event is one in which a hazardous material:
A.has been released into the environment
B.may be released into the environment
C.either has been or may be released into the environment
D.is being transported through a town or city


49. Which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning the effects of a hazardous material event?
A.it may cause the loss of the use of productive land that has been contaminated
B.it may cause the overcrowding of hospitals and health care facilities due to the exposure to a hazardous material
C.some substances cause little harm, while some may kill instantly
D.it has little effect on the operations of government entities since they are prepared to respond to such events


50. Which of the following would increase the likelihood of you being exposed to hazardous material at an event?
A.cool and clear conditions
B.heat and poor ventilation
C.warm with good ventilation
D.heat and good ventilation


51. Which of the following would NOT be used to obtain on-site information about a hazardous material being transported?
A.call the shipper at the point-of-origin
B.read placards
C.interview the person(s) transporting it
D.all of these could be used to obtain on-site information


52. The first step you should take in using the Incident Management System is:
A.recognize and identify the presence of a hazardous material
B.determine additional resources needed
C.control the risk by establishing perimeters around the event
D.establish a command structure to effectively handle the event


53. Which of the following procedures should you use to safeguard lives at a haz-mat event?
A.immediately start the clean-up of the material
B.leave your patrol vehicle open to allow the toxic fumes to vent through your vehicle rather than sit
C.remain upwind from the affected area
D.shut off all public notification so that you do not panic those still in the area


54. Which of the following is NOT protective personal gear that should be worn at a haz-mat event?
A.a self contained breathing apparatus
B.chemically resistant rubber gloves, footwear, and eye protection
C.bunker gear
D.your standard uniform is sufficient protection for most events


55. A crowd develops into ____________ when all or most of its members have been instilled with a purpose and an intent to carry out their purpose, regardless of the consequences. [5.2.1 (B)]
A.an uprising
B.a protest
C.a mob
D.a demonstration


56. Whenever a number of persons are assembled together in such a manner as to constitute a riot (according to the Penal Code of the State), it is the duty of every magistrate or peace officer to cause such persons to disperse.   
A.true
B.false


57.
R-2 5.2.2

In addition to the other elements of the offense of riot, there must be ______ or more participants present.
A.5
B.12
C.9
D.7



58.
R-3 5.2.1

A crowd can be classified as:
A.Large
B.Small
C.Casual
D.Supportive



59.
R-3 5.2.1

A crowd is defined as:
A.a group of persons with no unity or purpose and no leadership that will respond to directions given by police officers (shoppers and on-lookers)
B.they are assembled for some purpose and have leadership expressing an attitude such as political rallies or picket lines
C.they are usually assembled for some purpose and have positive leadership and can easily become a mob
D.usually assembles for a common purpose without leadership, they have a common interest but behave and think as individuals (spectators at a sporting event)
E.All the above is some type of a crowd



60. A mentally retarded person may sometimes be recognized by:
A.Physical impairment
B.Inappropriate clothing
C.Slowness in speech or slurred speech
D.All of the above
E.None of the above


61. The mentally retarded are always mentally ill.
A.True
B.False


62. A peace officer may, without first obtaining a warrant, take into custody any mentally ill person he might come in contact with.
A.True
B.False


63. You should place a mentally ill individual taken into custody:
A.In jail or a detention facility
B.In an appropriate mental health facility
C.In an emergency room of a local hospital
D.There are no restrictions on where they may be detained


64. An application for a magistrate's order for emergency apprehension and admission must state that the applicant believes the subject is mentally ill based upon _____________, described in detail.
A.Specific, recent behavior, acts, attempts, or threats
B.Prior behavior, acts, attempts, or threats
C.Notes written by the subject
D.Proposed, future behavior


65. Identify which of the following factors which would suggest the possibility of a person being mentally ill.
A.Talks to himself
B.Claims to be a witch
C.Thinks people are plotting against him
D.All of the above
E.A & C only


66. Which of the following is NOT a correct way to talk to a mentally ill person.
A.be calm
B.be patient, avoid "crowding" the individual
C.use the first name of the individual when talking with them
D.be very formal and business-like in your demeanor


67. __________ is an illness, disease, or condition that either substantially impacts a person's thought, perception of reality, emotional process, or impairs a person's behavior, as manifested by recent disturbance behavior.
A.Insanity
B.Stereotypes
C.Mental illness
D.Mental retardation


68. ___________ is a legal term for diminished capacity and inability to distinguish right from wrong.
A.Insanity
B.Stereotypes
C.Mental illness
D.Mental retardation


69. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning whether or not to request assistance when handling a mentally ill person?
A.the size and age of the individual
B.the fact that they, like others under stress, may exhibit extraordinary strength
C.back up should only be considered for the safety of the officers - the safety of others is not a factor to consider
D.the local MHMR center may be used for assistance or referrals as appropriate


70. A legal definition of ______________ is that a person has significantly sub-average intellectual functioning existing concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior.
A.insanity
B.stereotype
C.mental illness
D.mental retardation


71. Which of the following is NOT a communication or interaction skill to be utilized when dealing with a mentally retarded person?
A.give assurances and help the person relax
B.ask questions which can be answered by yes or no rather than open-ended questions
C.use pictures and diagrams if they do not appear to comprehend verbal or written language
D.speak slowly and ask simple, short questions


72. Who is responsible for administering the Crime Victim's Compensation Act?
A.the Legislature
B.the Department of Public Safety
C.the Department of Human Services
D.the Attorney General
E.both B & C


73. When investigating a domestic complaint, which of the following would NOT be correct for evaluating information received about the dispute?
A.upon arrival observe and listen for unusual conditions
B.approach the site in a cautious manner
C.run up to the site in order to use the element of surprise to your advantage
D.enter site cautiously looking for weapons


74.
R-4 3.12.3

The Crime Victim's Compensation Act may provide assistance for a victim of:
A.Burglary of a Habitation
B.Auto Theft
C.Criminal Mischief
D.Personal injury or death as a result of preventing crime or apprehending criminals
E.All of the above



75. Which of the following are types of abuse common to family violence?
A.sexual
B.destruction of property or pets
C.physical
D.emotional
E.all of the above


76. Family violence is a crime and should be treated as one. When probable cause is present, the officer's role is to:
A.not make an arrest if the victim spouse asks the officer not to do so
B.attempt mediation to try to calm the situation so arrest is not necessary
C.ask that one party leave for the night so potential conflict is reduced
D.make the arrest


77. Family violence statistics indicate that:
A.wife beating usually only results in minor injuries not requiring medical treatment
B.about one-third (30%) of murdered women are killed by their husbands or boyfriends
C.victims leave an average of six times before they leave for good
D.in approximately two-thirds (60%) of homes with spouse abuse, children are beaten as well
E.answers b, c, and d are all correct


78. Which of the following is true?
A.violent incidents generally only occur once
B.batterers probably grew up in homes where they were abused or witnessed abuse
C.the parties eventually work things out and the violence disappears over time
D.after a violent incident, batterers usually blame themselves


79. When an assault occurs without negative consequences for the batterer, he:
A.eventually surrender himself to local authorities
B.usually sees he has a behavioral problem and seeks help
C.realizes that in Texas the law permits a husband to discipline a wife with unruly behavior
D.finds it easy to deny to himself and others that he did anything wrong


80. One of the characteristics of a batterer is:
A.he denies responsibility for his violent actions
B.usually tries to hide his violent factions from his children
C.generally is not himself a victim of past family violence
D.is not very possessive of his spouse because he feels she's just a slut


81. When responding to a reported family violence incident, officers should:
A.arrive at the scene with lights and siren going to stop the violence
B.approach the scene as one of potential high risk being observant for facts and circumstances which might support probable cause for an arrest
C.be as aggressive and authoritarian as possible always using strong force to let the parties know who is in charge
D.always leave immediately if someone meets officers at the front door and says that it was just a family argument and the officers remain they will be filed on for trespassing


82. When interviewing a victim of family violence, officers should:
A.not allow the victim to ventilate, but get right to the facts of the incident
B.tell the victim the officer will leave if she does not stop crying and start cooperating
C.press the victim for an explanation of why she did what she did to provoke him
D.acknowledge her fear of future violence from the abuser and reassure her that the officers are concerned for her safety


83. In Texas, which of the following would qualify for a Protective Order?
A.brother and sister
B.a formerly dating couple that never lived together
C.co-workers
D.neighbors


84. Once signed by an appropriate court of jurisdiction, a Protective Order:
A.is both civilly and, in some respects, criminally enforceable
B.is valid for up to one year
C.is valid only in the county where the Protective Order was granted
D.both a and b are true statements


85. The person to whom the Protective Order is directed is usually ordered by the court NOT to:
A.communicate directly or indirectly with specified persons in a threatening or harassing manner
B.file for divorce during the tenure of the Protective Order
C.move out of the county in which the Protective Order was granted
D.all of the above are true statements


86. Following the issuance of a Protective Order, if the victim reconciles with the person to whom the order was directed:
A.the Protective Order is automatically nullified
B.the Protective order remains in full force and effect
C.officers may not then arrest the abuser for a violation of the previously arrestable "prohibited acts"
D.the parties must notify their attorneys and the judge who issued the Protective Order that the parties have legally reconciled


87. By Texas law, the fees and costs for a person seeking a Protective Order are (unless a pauper's oath is signed):
A.$12 for the application and $15 for the service of the order = $27
B.$10 for the application and $40 for the service of the order = $50
C.$16 for the application and $20 for the service of the order = $36
D.$25 for the application and $30 for the service of the order = $55


88. Which of the following are types of abuse common to family violence?
A.sexual
B.destruction of property or pets
C.emotional
D.all of the above   


89. Family violence is a crime and should be treated as one. When probable cause is present, the officer's role is to:
A.not make an arrest if the victim spouse asks the officer not to do so
B.attempt mediation to try to calm the situation so arrest is not necessary
C.ask that one party leave for the night so potential conflict is reduced
D.make the arrest


90. Which of the following is true?
A.violent incidents generally only occur once
B.batterers probably grew up in homes where they were abused or witnessed abuse
C.the parties eventually work things out and the violence disappears over time
D.after a violent incident, batterers usually blame themselves


91. When an assault occurs without negative consequences for the batterer, he:
A.eventually surrender himself to local authorities
B.usually sees he has a behavior problem and seeks help
C.realizes that in Texas the law permits a husband to discipline a wife with unruly behavior
D.finds it easy to deny to himself and others that he did anything wrong


92. One of the characteristics of a batterer is:
A.he denies responsibility for his violent actions
B.usually tries to hide his violent actions from his children
C.generally is not himself a victim of past family violence
D.is not very possessive of his spouse because he feels she's just a slut


93. When responding to a reported family violence incident, officers should:
A.arrive at the scene with lights and siren going to stop the violence
B.approach the scene as one of potential high risk being observant for facts and circumstances which might support probable cause for an arrest
C.be as aggressive and authoritarian as possible always using strong force to let the parties know who is in charge
D.always leave immediately if someone meets officers at the front door (this person will usually say that it was just a family argument and that if the officers remain they will be filed on for trespassing)


94. When interviewing a victim of family violence, officers should:
A.not allow the victim to ventilate, but get right to the facts of the incident
B.tell the victim the officer will leave if she does not stop crying and start cooperating
C.press the victim for an explanation of why she die what she did to provoke him
D.acknowledge her fear of future violence from the abuser and reassure her that the officers are concerned for her safety


95. In Texas, which of the following relationships would qualify for a Protective Order?
A.brother and sister
B.a formerly dating couple that never lived together
C.co-workers
D.neighbors


96. Once signed by an appropriate court of jurisdiction, a Protective Order:
A.is both civilly and, in some respect, criminally enforceable
B.is valid for up to one year
C.is valid only in the county where the Protective Order was granted
D.both a and b are true statements


97. The person to whom the Protective Order is directed is usually ordered by the court not to:
A.communicate directly or indirectly with specified persons in a threatening or harassing manner
B.file for divorce during the tenure of the Protective Order
C.move out of the county in which the Protective Order was granted
D.All of the above are true statements


98. Following the issuance of a Protective Order, if the victim reconciles with the person to whom the order was directed:
A.the Protective Order is automatically nullified
B.the Protective Order remains in full force and effect
C.officers may not then arrest the abuser for a violation of the previously arrestable "prohibited acts"
D.the parties must notify their attorneys and the judge who issued the Protective Order that the parties have legally reconciled


99. By Texas law, the fees and costs for a person seeking a Protective Order are (unless a pauper's oath is signed):
A.$12 for the application and $15 for the service of the order=$27
B.$10 for the application and $40 for the service of the order=$50
C.$16 for the application and $20 for the service of the order=$36
D.$25 for the application and $30 for the service of the order=$55


100. Which of the following is not one of the basic elements or types of responses exhibited by victims of crime?
A.fear
B.violation
C.denial
D.hope


101. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of grief that victims experience?
A.shock
B.guilt
C.vulnerability
D.depression or loneliness


102. In discussing how intensely a victim reacts to an incident, which of the following would NOT be a factor?
A.the victim and his/her background (age, gender, etc.)
B.the culture of the victim
C.the type of crime
D.whether the response of the police was timely


103. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the physical response to trauma?
A.we can maintain the physical arousal associated with fight or flight indefinitely
B.you can experience "frozen flight" - disorientation and numbness
C.the physical response to trauma is based on our animal instincts
D.adrenaline begins to pump through the body


104. Recovery from trauma is NOT affected by:
A.the ability to understand what has happened to us
B.supportive environment
C.severity of the crisis reaction
D.your age


105. Which of the following statements is NOT correct concerning a person's long term crisis reaction?
A.many victims continue to re-experience crisis reactions over long periods of time
B.certain "trigger events" (such as identifying an assailant, etc.) may remind the victim of the trauma they experienced
C.all victims suffer from long term stress reactions
D.long term stress reactions usually decrease over time


106. Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate way to make a death notification?
A.be prepared for the the bereaved to go into shock
B.provide information to the family without jeopardizing a criminal investigation
C.call the family by phone to make the notification
D.let the survivors know you care


107. Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of an appropriate death notification?
A.you should convey the information simply and directly
B.notification should occur as soon as the identity of the deceased has been established
C.you should provide all the information available to you, including all the details of the criminal investigation
D.at least one of those making the notification should be in uniform


108. The ripple effect of crime victimization has been know to touch:
A.service providers such as police and EMS
B.the news media
C.local politicians
D.contributions to such charity's as Red Cross


109. Which of the following would not be an element of crisis intervention?
A.rescue fantasy
B.second guessing
C.anger
D.required counselling by the local mental health chapter


110. While in a pursuit an officer must consider the safety of the public, the officer, and the violator.
A.True
B.False


111. An officer should take a drivers license handed to him while it is still in the violator's wallet.
A.True
B.False


112. On most stops, an officer should approach a violator's vehicle from the:
A.right rear
B.left rear
C.right front
D.left front


113. Upon approaching the violator's vehicle, the officer should:
A.have his citation book in his gun hand
B.have his pen in his gun hand
C.have his flashlight in his gun hand
D.have his gun hand free


114.
R-5 27.5.1

Remarks made by the officer should be in the form of a statement rather than a question.
A.True
B.False



115.
R-5 27.5.1

An officer should practice the technique of refraining from using the word _______ during the violator interview.
A.I
B.You
C.We
D.Us



116.
R-5 27.5.1

In order to create a real expression of friendliness, the officer should give the subject a reason to feel sorry for giving him the citation.
A.True
B.False



117.
R-5 27.5.1

The first contact with the violator should be:
A.designed to let the violator know what traffic violation was made and that they will receive a traffic ticket.
B.designed to permit the violator the give an explanation of the driving conduct.
C.a polite greeting in which the officer makes a personal and agency identification, provides a brief explanation for the purpose of the stop, and requests the operator's driver's license and proof of insurance.
D.a lecture on the need for better driving.



118. In writing the traffic ticket, the officer should:
A.sit inside the patrol car.
B.stand with the violator between the police vehicle and the violator's vehicle.
C.place the ticket book on the hood of the patrol vehicle hood to use it as a writing platform.
D.place one foot on the vehicle bumper, providing support for the ticket book while writing a ticket.
E.stand behind the right-rear fender of the police unit and continue to observe the violator's vehicle while writing the traffic citation.


119. of the following is not one of the objectives of patrol?
A.to preserve the peace
B.to suppress crime by timely response
C.to apprehend suspects
D.to regulate non-criminal conduct through good officer-citizen relationships.
E.all of the above are objectives of patrol


120. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning the various hazards encountered while on patrol?
A.back-up units should secure their headlights, overheads, etc. so as not to silhouette other officers
B.you should attempt to select your location for a vehicle stop to reduce or prevent silhouetting
C.Officers should peer through open windows or stand in doorways to see potential threats
D.hold your flashlight in front of and away from your body


121. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the distinctive sounds of a police officer and his location?
A.your keys, baton, and other equipment on your belt might alert someone to your presence
B.you should not park to close to a scene to minimize the engine noise
C.slamming your unit door can alert someone
D.you should turn all radios off in order to eliminate that source of noise


122. If a suspect has his hands in his pockets, you should:
A.have him remove them
B.not allow him to remove them
C.find cover and do a felony suspect take down
D.do nothing - it does not make any difference


123. Which of the following is not true concerning one-officer patrol?
A.one-officer alone takes more chances
B.preventive enforcement is doubled by having twice as many vehicles on patrol
C.one-officer devotes more attention to patrol functions
D.an officer alone develops self-reliance


124. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning two-officer patrol?
A.one can operate the radio while the other drives
B.provides less of a safety factor due to lack of attention
C.it can be used as a training aid to correct officers mistakes
D.they can share driving duties


125. The Field Interview is not used:
A.to learn about people
B.as a good source for information
C.to determine which patrol make (or type) to use


126. Which of the following is not a formal method used by law enforcement agencies to enhance public service?
A.questionnaire's
B.non-punitive interactions with the public (talking to people)
C.medical solicitation
D.prepared questions when addressing civic groups


127. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the historical development of the police models or styles of the 1900 - 1940's era.
A.Law enforcement officers were usually known by the citizens in the areas in which they worked
B.the assignment of officers from walking beats to motorized (radio) units brought the officers and community closer together
C.there was no real quality evaluation of services thru this period
D.automobiles allowed a more rapid response to calls for service


128. Which of the following statements is true concerning the historical development of police models or styles of the l950 - 1970's era. (2.1.1)
A.the patrol system became a pro-active rather than incident driven approach for police response
B.the professional model, with its emphasis on accountability and standards, developed and became the dominant style of policing
C.the use of automobiles had little or no affect on response to calls for service
D.the emphasis on follow-up activities shifted from specialized units to patrol


129. The emphasis on policing for the era of 1980 thru today has been the ______________community or problem-oriented policing. (26.1.1)
A.withdrawal from
B.implementation of
C.experimental use of


130. Which of the following is not descriptive of the traditional police service model. 26.1.2
A.reactive response
B.use of the criminal justice systems the primary means of resolving incidents
C.incident driven
D.pro-active response


131. Which of the following is not included in the definition of community policing? 26.1.3
A.it can be implemented using existing organizational structures and staffing
B.it is based on the concept of the police and citizens working together in creative ways to solve community problems
C.it requires creating a community policing officer (CPO) that can maintain face-to-face contact with citizens
D.it shifts the focus of policing from handling random calls to solving community problems


132. You may use ____________ to prevent someone from committing suicide.
A.deadly force
B.force
C.force or deadly force
D.none of the above may be used to prevent suicide


133. __________ is the Supreme Court case which limited when a police officer may use deadly force in a fleeing felon situation.
A.Mapp vs. Ohio
B.Terry vs. Ohio
C.Agular vs. Texas
D.Tennessee vs. Garner


134. The Supreme Court case on the use of deadly force against a fleeing felon, although limiting when deadly force may be used, still allows the use of deadly force against any fleeing felon.
A.True
B.False


135. If someone verbally abuses you, you are justified in using force against that person.
A.True
B.False


136. There are no circumstances where an individual may use force to resist an arrest or search.
A.True
B.False


137. The Penal Code allows the use of deadly force to prevent the imminent commission of certain offenses.
A.True
B.False


138. You may use only the amount of force necessary to restrain a person resisting an arrest or search.
A.True
B.False


139. The use of _________ is justifiable to prevent the escape of an arrested person when the force used could have been employed to effect the arrest for the offense under which the person is in custody.      
A.deadly force
B.force
C.restraints
D.firearms


140. The use of force is not justified:
A.by a grandparent to discipline a child
B.to discipline a child if the actor is entrusted with the care or supervision of the person for a special purpose and the actor reasonably believes the force is necessary to maintain discipline in a group
C.the actor is the guardian of an incompetent and believes it is necessary to show the incompetent who is in charge of their care
D.all of the above


141. The fact that the use of force might be justified:
A.affects the civil remedies that might be available
B.partially affects the civil remedies that might be available
C.does not affect the civil remedies that might be available
D.is not a factor to be concerned with in the use of force


142. You, as a peace officer, have a duty to retreat before using deadly force.
A.True
B.False


143.
R-6 3.3.35(B)1M

The Penal Code permits the use of deadly force to prevent the commission of theft or criminal mischief at anytime.
A.True
B.False



144. __________ is the minimum amount of lawful force sufficient to achieve a legitimate police objective.
A.Force
B.Deadly force
C.Reasonable force
D.A & B
E.None of the above


145. Which of the following is not an element needed for a civil suit to be filed against a police officer in Federal Court under Section 1983?
A.That the officer acted under color of law
B.A person acted
C.The victim was deprived of a constitutionally guaranteed right
D.It was a custom of the officers agency


146. The threat to use deadly force, even if deadly force would not be justified, is allowed if it were the intention of the actor to create an apprehension of the use of deadly force.
A.True
B.False


147. You could be prosecuted for the reckless injury or killing of an innocent third party if the use or manner of use of force clearly presents an unreasonable and unjustifiable risk of injury to innocent bystanders.
A.True
B.False


148. It is _______________ that the conduct in question was justified under Chapter 9 of the Penal Code.
A.NO defense to prosecution
B.A defense to prosecution
C.only important in civil suits
D.irrelevant


149. Confinement is justified when ____________ is justified by Chapter 9.
A.force
B.custody
C.detention
D.deadly force


150. You can use force to resist:
A.an arrest that is unlawful
B.a detention that is unlawful
C.an arrest where the officer, before you offer any resistance, uses or attempts to use more force than is necessary to make the arrest
D.never


151. Under which of the following could you not use deadly force?
A.to prevent another from fleeing immediately after committing criminal mischief
B.to the degree you reasonably believe the deadly force is immediately necessary to protect ones' self against the others use of unlawful deadly force
C.to prevent the others imminent commission of aggravated sexual assault
D.to prevent the others imminent commission of aggravated kidnapping


152. Which of the following is the most common type of resistance encountered by law enforcement officers?
A.passive resistance
B.hit/kicked
C.weapon
D.pull away


153. Which of the following moral considerations or forces is most likely to have the greatest influence on an officers' decision to use deadly force?
A.the law (both statutory and case)
B.the informal organization
C.departmental policy
D.the individual's conscience


154. Which of the following statements is true concerning the psychological aspects of the use of force?
A.The police role is primarily offensive in nature in a physical arrest.
B.Self-control results from confidence in one's skills through practice and training.
C.Control is a "one-way street" where only the suspect needs to be controlled.
D.The officer being in control of his emotions has no influence on his ability to control a suspect.


155. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning a professional police officers use of force?
A.know when to move from words to force
B.know when to return to words once a threat is over
C.have the ability to evaluate personnel performance
D.none of the above; all are true statements


156. Which of the following verbal appeals is based upon an appeal to a person based upon your position as a professional officer that assures the other person of your desire for a positive outcome?
A.practical appeal
B.rational appeal
C.ethical appeal
D.personal appeal


157. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning the various hazards encountered while on patrol?
A.back-up units should secure their headlights, overheads, etc. so as not to silhouette other officers
B.you should attempt to select your location for a vehicle stop to reduce or prevent silhouetting
C.Officers should peer through open windows or stand in doorways to see potential threats
D.hold your flashlight in front of and away from your body


158. Which of the following is not an element of beat characteristic.
A.Area conditions
B.Crime hazards
C.Crime committed in the area
D.Location of the Police Station


159. When an officer notices a light off in a building which is usually on, he should not be alarmed or become suspicious.
A.True
B.False


160. Which of the following is an advantage of vehicle patrol ?
A.Speed & mobility
B.Officer protection
C.Permits the carrying of extra equipment
D.All of the above


161. Which of the following is not a recommended technique in making a routine traffic stop for a violation of the Uniform Act?
A.In addition to the emergency lights, the officer should use several short blasts of the vehicle horn to gain the attention of the violator in the daytime.
B.When the violator's car is stopped, the officer should park the police vehicle @ 12 to 15 feet behind the violator's vehicle in an offset position.
C.To maintain good radio discipline, the officer should alert the officer dispatcher of the stop only if a suspected felon is likely to be encountered.
D.In making contact with the violator, the officer should stand behind the driver's door and watch the violator's hands at all times.


162.
R-7 TX P/O

The first step in handling any crime in progress is to:
A.arrive safely
B.deploy personnel so that a suspect cannot escape.
C.drive to the scene with the red lights and siren all the way to the door.
D.issue commands to a suspect to effect his arrest.



163.
R-7 TX P/O

Which of the following is not a correct procedure in approaching a traffic violator's vehicle after a pull over has been accomplished?
A.Upon exiting from the patrol vehicle, the officer should stand momentarily behind the door of the patrol unit and continue to observe the actions of the occupants of the violator's vehicle.
B.In approaching the violator's vehicle, the officer uses the vehicle as protection from other traffic on the highway by moving slightly to the right when approaching the left side of the violator's vehicle.
C.While passing the vehicle trunk, the officer should observe if a trunk lock is in place and if the trunk is closed by placing a hand on top of the trunk and pushing down.
D.The officer should observe the passenger compartment of the vehicle for persons who may be hiding or concealed in the vehicle.
E.In talking with the violator, the officer should stand next to the driver's door in order to observe the front seat and the driver's hands.



164.
R-7 TX P/O

In devising a patrol method, officers should be:
A.systematic and predictable.
B.unsystematic and predictable.
C.systematic and unpredictable.
D.unsystematic and unpredictable.



165.
R-7 TX P/O

During routine preventive patrol, the officer should do all of the following with one exception. Which of the following describes the exception?
A.Back tracking or doubling back to create the aura of police omnipresence
B.Using the tactic of becoming predictably unpredictable to confuse and thwart the person contemplating any criminal activity
C.Since the officer realizes that many accidents happen at one intersection between 4:00 PM and 4:30 PM the officer should establish selective enforcement at this intersection each day on patrol.
D.On a freeway or thoroughfare the officer should drive the patrol car at a speed of five MPH below the posted speed limit.



166.
R-7 TX P/O

Which of the following is false regarding family disputes?
A.A police officer should never give legal advice to the parties involved in the dispute.
B.The officer's concern in the family dispute is to bring a temporary resolution toward peace and harmony.
C.The officer achieves greatest success in settling the domestic dispute by showing anger and displeasure at the conduct of the disputants since they will respond positively to authority figures
D.None of the above.



167.
R-7 TX P/O

Which of the following is not a faulty driver attitude that greatly contributes to the occurrence of traffic accidents?
A.Overconfidence
B.Self-righteousness
C.Impatience
D.Preoccupation
E.Fatigue



168.
R-7 TX P/O

Which of the following positions should the second member of the police unit two-person team assume during the traffic stop?
A.Remain seated in the police unit next to the police radio while keeping alert for any unusual movements in the violator's vehicle.
B.Exit the right side of the vehicle to provide cover for the partner officer.
C.With the primary officer approaching from the left side of the violator's vehicle, the second officer moves to a position adjacent to the back center of the violator's vehicle.
D.The second officer slides to the driver's seat in the police vehicle and prepares to chase the violator in the event the driver chooses to drive away while the primary officer is approaching.
E.None of the above responds to the question.



169. If you find a device or suspicious object which you feel is a bomb you should remove it from the area immediately to minimize the danger.
A.True
B.False


170.
R-8 27.5.5

When investigating a bomb threat you should do which of the following?
A.Secure the area and restrict entry
B.Determine if evacuation is necessary
C.Continue operations as if nothing had happened so as not to alarm anyone
D.Notify the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms
E.Secure the area, restrict entry, and determine if an evacuation is necessary



171. Which of the following is an advantage of one man patrol ?
A.An officer alone develops self-reliance, rather than depending on a partner for back-up
B.A lone officer in a patrol vehicle takes fewer chances
C.Personality clashes are reduced
D.All of the above


172. The primary importance of patrol is:
A.Visibility
B.Protection and service
C.Availability
D.Write citations


173. Officers should not stand in doorways and hallways, or peer openly through broken or otherwise open windows.
A.True
B.False


174. Which of the following is not true concerning one-officer patrol?
A.one-officer alone takes more chances
B.preventive enforcement is doubled by having twice as many vehicles on patrol
C.one-officer devotes more attention to patrol functions
D.an officer alone develops self-reliance


175. Which of the following is not a formal method used by law enforcement agencies to enhance public service?
A.questionnaire's
B.non-punitive interactions with the public (talking to people)
C.medical solicitation
D.prepared questions when addressing civic groups


176. Crime prevention is defined as:
A.Aggressive patrol with good community relations
B.Preaching to everyone you stop about what they did wrong
C.Anticipation, recognition and appraisal of a crime risk and action to remove or reduce it
D.Arresting all suspects who look like criminals


177. Which of the following is an advantage of two-man patrol ?
A.Greater safety factor by doubling manpower
B.Share driving duties
C.Two pair of eyes are better than one
D.All of the above


178. The Field Interview is not used:
A.to learn about people
B.as a good source for information
C.to determine which patrol make (or type) to use


179. People observe and know many things which they will tell an officer who has developed good rapport through proper field inquiry.
A.True
B.False


180. Which of the following is an advantage of foot patrol ?
A.Person to person contact
B.Exempt from calls
C.Not as visible to the public
D.None of the above


181. Preventive patrol is highly visible in order to discourage the occurrence of the problem you are seeking to control.
A.True
B.False


182. If it is not possible to offset the police vehicle to a violator's vehicle on a felony stop, then it is acceptable to turn the police vehicle at an angle with the right front of the police vehicle toward the suspect vehicle.
A.True
B.False


183.
R-9 27.5.2

When making a felony traffic stop, the first order of business is to signal the suspect vehicle to stop.
A.True
B.False



184. Not asking suspects to place their hands in view is a common and accepted police practice.
A.True
B.False


185. When patrolling the beat, the officer should:
A.Develop regular routes of patrol to insure proper coverage
B.Drive the vehicle at 15 miles per hour
C.Use the circular method, the double-back method, or the random method of patrol
D.All of the above are correct


186. If a suspect has his hands in his pockets, you should:
A.have him remove them
B.not allow him to remove them
C.find cover and do a felony suspect take down
D.do nothing - it does not make any difference


187. In the random patrol method, the officers
A.Picks his own beat to patrol within his jurisdiction
B.Picks his own spot patrol within his own beat
C.Retraces his tracks at random with his vehicle
D.Chooses which crimes he wants to patrol for


188. Upon finding an open window during night patrol the first action taken should be:
A.Request back-up
B.Secure other exits
C.Notify headquarters
D.Notify the owner of the problem


189. When searching a building, the team should stay together and search each room thoroughly before moving to the next room.
A.True
B.False


190. Which of the following is the most important criteria for determining priority of a call:
A.Medical emergency
B.Crime in progress
C.Impending movement of persons
D.Impending movement of vehicles


191. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of patrol?
A.to preserve the peace
B.to suppress crime by timely response
C.to apprehend suspects
D.to regulate non-criminal conduct through good officer-citizen relationships.
E.all of the above are objectives of patrol


192. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the distinctive sounds of a police officer and his location?
A.your keys, baton, and other equipment on your belt might alert someone to your presence
B.you should not park to close to a scene to minimize the engine noise
C.slamming your unit door can alert someone
D.you should turn all radios off in order to eliminate that source of noise


193. Which of the following is important to familiarize yourself with prior to going on patrol?
A.Beat characteristic
B.Known offenders
C.Both A & B
D.Neither A or B


194. Observation means more than just seeing something.
A.True
B.False


195. It is not important that you, as a Peace Officer, obey traffic laws while on patrol.
A.True
B.False


196. The proper position for your hands when operating a vehicle are:
A.10 & 2
B.12 & 6
C.9 & 3
D.4 & 7


197. Which of the following is not an authorized emergency vehicle.
A.Vehicles operated by blood or tissue banks while making emergency deliveries of blood or organs
B.Police vehicles
C.Fire department vehicles
D.Public & private ambulances for which permits have been issued by the State Board of Health
E.All of the above are authorized emergency vehicles


198. An officer operating under non-emergency conditions is subject to the same "rules of the road" as any other driver.
A.true
B.false


199. Law enforcement agencies with pursuit policies are immune from civil liability suits.
A.true
B.false


200. The "shuffle steer" technique is only useful when driving in emergency situations.
A.true
B.false


201. _________________ patrol is low visibility and surveillance.
A.Routine
B.Preventive
C.Selective
D.Apprehension


202. As defined in the code, an alcoholic beverage must be capable of beverage purposes either alone or diluted.
A.True
B.False


203. The sale of an alcoholic beverage to an intoxicated person is a criminal offense and an administrative violation.
A.True
B.False


204. All holders of a ____________ must display the "Felony Weapon" sign.
A.license
B.permit
C.license or permit
D.package store certificate


205. A Wine & Beer Retailer's Off-Premise Permit may allow beer to be consumed on the premises.
A.True
B.False


206. The holder of a Package Store Permit may sell liquor between the hours of 10:00 am & 9:00 pm on Sundays, but not on holidays.
A.True
B.False


207. A license or permit is valid for a period of ___________ from the date issued.
A.2 years
B.1 year
C.6 months
D.5 years


208. A minor may consume alcoholic beverages in the visible presence of his ___________________.
A.parents
B.court appointed guardian
C.adult spouse
D.all of the above


209. A peace officer may arrest any person he finds consuming alcoholic beverages at 3:00 am, if found in a public place.
A.True
B.False


210. No alcoholic beverage may be sold on an election day.
A.true
B.false


211. A license or permit may be suspended or cancelled for permitting lewd conduct on the licensed premise.
A.true
B.false


212. It is illegal for a minor to attempt to purchase an alcoholic beverage even if he is unsuccessful.
A.true
B.false


213. A permittee may possess an alcoholic beverage that he is not authorized to sell as long as he does not consume it.
A.true
B.false


214. It is illegal to possess an alcoholic beverage on public school grounds.
A.true
B.false


215. A person who violates a provision of the Texas Alcoholic Beverage Code for which a specific penalty is not provided is guilty of:
A.a felony punishable by a fine of $500
B.a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of $100 to $1,000
C.a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of $100 to $1,000 or by confinement in the county jail for not more than one year
D.it is just a class C misdemeanor


216. A minor, as defined by the Texas Alcoholic Beverage Code, is a person under _______ years of age.
A.14
B.17
C.19
D.21


217. Possession of more than _________ of liquor in a dry area is prima facie evidence that it is possessed with intent to sell.
A.a gallon
B.one-half gallon
C.a quart
D.a pint


218. You cannot arrest someone for interfering with the execution of an eviction proceeding.
A.True
B.False


219. Who can serve civil process?
A.Any peace officer
B.Sheriffs and their deputies
C.Constables and their deputies
D.Both sheriff's and their deputies and constable's and their deputies


220. Under what circumstances may a landlord legally cut off a tenant's utilities?
A.Anytime he wants to
B.With a court order
C.When the utilities are in the landlord's name
D.When the tenant voluntarily agrees


221. If a tenant moves back into a house after being evicted, what criminal charge may be filed against him?
A.Burglary
B.Criminal Mischief
C.Criminal Trespass
D.Criminal charges cannot be filed against the tenant


222. What length of time do you have to serve a citation?
A.10 days
B.30 days
C.60 days
D.There is no limit on when it may be served


223. A civil "wrong", or tort, may also be a "criminal offense" as well.
A.True
B.False


224. A __________ is an order from a court to take a person named therein into custody and place that person before the court or in the possession of a person designated by the court.
A.Precept
B.Writ of Garnishment
C.Writ of Possession
D.Writ of Attachment for Persons
E.None of the above


225.
A citation may be sent registered or certified mail,with delivery
R-10 3.17.1 (D)1

Identify who may serve writs and process.
A.Constable
B.Sheriff
C.Any peace officer
D.all of the above
E.A and B only



226. A citation may be sent registered or certified mail, with delivery restricted to addressee only.
A.True
B.False


227. Which should be included in an "officers return", as it applies to civil process?
A.Time and place of service
B.The official signature of the officer
C.The day and hour of receipt
D.The manner in which the process was served or executed
E.All the above are in an officers return


228. Which can result in a civil suit against an officer?
A.false imprisonment
B.wrongful death
C.negligent vehicle operation
D.beating a prisoner
E.all of the above


229. Proper service of a citation on a partnership authorizes a judgement against the partnership if:
A.both partners are served with a citation
B.either partner is served with a citation


230.
R-11 HANDOUT

Civil law is the portion of the law which defines and determines the rights of the individual in protecting his _____________ and his ______________.
A.community, person
B.dwelling, person
C.person, property



231.
R-11 HANDOUT

Civil Capias and Writ of Attachment for a person follow the same rules as service of citations and may not be served on Sundays or Holidays.
A.True
B.False



232.
R-11 HANDOUT

All Texas Peace Officers are permitted to serve Texas warrants, Capias, civil Capias, and writ of attachment (persons).
A.True
B.False



233.
R-11 HANDOUT

The most common application of a _________________ is a process to receive a judgement, in which case it is merely a continuation of the original action.
A.Writ of Attachment
B.Writ of Garnishment
C.Writ of Sequestration



234.
R-11 HANDOUT

A person who refuses to surrender possession of real property on demand commits a forcible detainer if the person is a tenant or subtenant willfully and without force holding over that the termination of the tenant's right of possession.
A.True
B.False



235.
R-11 HANDOUT

If a landlord or landlord's agent changes the door locks of a tenant who is delinquent in paying rent, the landlord or their agent must place a written notice on the tenant's front door stating the name and location of the individual from whom the new key may be obtained only during daylight hours.
A.True
B.False



236.
R-11 HANDOUT

Under normal circumstances, the landlord shall refund a security deposit to the tenant on or before the _______ day after the date the tenant surrenders the premises.
A.5th
B.30th
C.10th
D.15th



237.
R-11 HANDOUT

All personal property (things) that belong to an individual or a corporation, in relation to executions is known as a ___________
A.designation
B.homestead
C.legal description
D.chattel



238.
R-11 HANDOUT

Land belonging to an individual that is used as their principal residence, and is designated as their ____________ by filing it with the County Clerk.
A.homestead
B.legal description
C.real property
D.deed



239. The ____________ is a party in a civil suit; namely, the one who starts the suit by filing a petition.
A.defendant
B.respondent
C.principal
D.plaintiff


240. A __________ is the official notice from a court issued to a defendant after a plaintiff's petition is filed; it commands the defendant to answer and appear in court at a specific time.
A.citation
B.subpoena
C.Writ of Sequestration
D.Writ of Habeas Corpus


241. A driver must upon the approach of an emergency vehicle that is using its emergency light and siren :
A.Pull over to the right edge of the roadway and stop
B.Pull over to the left edge of the roadway and stop
C.Pull over to either side and allow the emergency vehicle to pass
D.All of the above
9.1.11


242. Dealer's Temporary Cardboard license plates may be used:
A.When a dealer is moving the vehicle
B.When road testing
C.When the vehicle is sold; for 21 days
D.Both A & B only
E.Both A & C only
9.1.25


243. An officer may issue a notice to appear for Class C misdemeanor in the Transportation Code.
A.True
B.False
9.1.20


244. A person who is a resident of Texas may be arrested and transported to jail for traffic offense of speeding only.
A.True
B.False
9.1.20


245. An emergency vehicle may exceed the speed limit even to the extent that it may endanger other persons.
A.True
B.False
9.1.16


246. A driver may cross a solid yellow stripe to overtake and pass another vehicle proceeding in the same direction when:
A.there is 500 feet or more distance between the drivers vehicle and any vehicles proceeding in the opposite direction
B.it is safe to do so
C.there is no other traffic visible proceeding in the opposite direction
D.a driver may not cross a solid yellow line to overtake and pass another vehicle proceeding in the same direction
9.1.9


247. Unless otherwise stated a violation of the Transportation Code is a:
A.Class B misdemeanor
B.Capital felony
C.Class C misdemeanor
D.Class A misdemeanor
9.1.6


248. When a railroad crossing warning light is flashing, a vehicle may proceed around it:
A.if the train is 1500 feet or less from the intersection
B.if the train is moving slowly
C.if, after stopping, you may proceed safely
D.if the approaching train is visible
E.none of the above
9.1.12


249. Generally speaking, ______ is the youngest age one can obtain a Class C drivers license.
A.14
B.15
C.16
D.there is no minimum age requirement
9.1.7


250. A motorcycle is not required to have stop lamps if it is equipped with a reflector on the rear of the motorcycle.
A.True
B.False
9.1.17


251. An inspection certificate is good for _____ working days after expiration.
A.5
B.l0
C.l5
D.No limit
9.1.17


252. New residents must obtain a drivers license in this State within ______days.
A.l0 days
B.20 days
C.30 days
D.No limit
9.1.7


253. A Class _________license is required to operate a motorcycle.
A.C
B.G
C.A
D.M
9.1.7


254. If a person has a current Texas drivers license but does not display it to a Peace Officer upon demand he is guilty of what offense.
A.Fail to identify
B.Fail to display drivers license
C.Fail to obey a lawful order
D.No drivers license
9.1.7


255. A person that operates a motor vehicle on a public roadway which is not currently registered is guilty of what offense?
A.Operating illegal motor vehicle
B.Operating unregistered motor vehicle
C.Display wrong license plate
D.None of the above
9.1.25


256. A vehicle is stopped for a traffic offense and the driver fails to display proof of liability insurance. The correct arrest title is
A.no liability insurance
B.fail to display proof of liability insurance
C.fail to obtain financial responsibility
D.this is not represent a traffic offense
9.1.26


257. When must a person arrested be taken immediately before a magistrate.
A.When a person arrested demands an immediate appearance before a magistrate
B.When a person is arrested upon a charge of negligent homicide
C.When a person is arrested upon a charge for DWI
D.When a person is arrested upon a charge of failure to stop and render aid
E.All of the above
9.1.20


258. The boundary lines of a highway are:
A.The entire width between the boundary lines publicly maintained when any part is used for vehicular travel
B.The improved portion used for vehicular travel only
C.From shoulder to shoulder
D.Both A & B
E.None of the above
9.1.3


259. __________ means every device in, upon, or by which any person or property is or may be transported or drawn upon a highway, except devices used exclusively upon stationary rails or tracks.
A.Automobile
B.Motor vehicle
C.Vehicle
D.Passenger car
9.1.1


260. No vehicle may overtake to the left if such movement causes the vehicle to come within 200 feet of oncoming traffic.
A.True
B.False
9.1.9


261. On a two way roadway, no vehicle shall be driven on the left side of the roadway, between _____ feet of an intersection, bridge, or tunnel in an incorporated city.
A.100
B.300
C.500
D.1500
9.1.9


262. A vehicle is legally parked if it is ____ inches from the curb.
A.6
B.12
C.18
D.24
9.1.13


263. A vehicle may be operated legally without windshield wipers only during daylight when the weather is clear.
A.True
B.False
9.1.17


264. What is the youngest age at which a hardship license may be issued in the State of Texas?
A.12
B.15
C.16
D.21
9.1.7


265. A driver may cross a fire hose if given permission by:
A.the policeman in charge
B.the fireman in charge
C.A dog catcher
D.A Justice of the Peace
9.1.15


266. Daylight is defined as:
A.Sunrise to sunset
B.1/2 after sunrise to 1/2 hour before sunset
C.1/2/ hour before sunrise to sunset
D.1/2 before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset
9.1.4


267. Prior to model year ______, vehicles need not be equipped with electric turn signals.
A.1967
B.1960
C.1954
D.1971
9.1.17


268. No more than ________ driving lamps may be lighted at any one time while the vehicle is in operation.
A.4
B.6
C.2
D.5
9.1.17


269. Fleeing from a police officer using a motor vehicle is a ________________ offense.
A.3rd Degree Felony
B.Class A Misdemeanor
C.Class B Misdemeanor
D.Class State Jail Felony
9.1.15


270. A buyers temporary cardboard license is valid for ______ days.
A.10 days
B.20 days
C.21 days
D.24 days
9.1.25


271. A police officer is exempt from certain traffic laws without the use of emergency equipment under which of the following conditions?
A.knowledge of his presence will cause the suspect to destroy or loose evidence of a suspected felony
B.the suspect might flee
C.that there might be a greater potential for collision on a multi lane roadway with the use of emergency equipment
D.all of the above
9.1.16


272. The elements of the offense of Allowing A Child To Ride In The Bed Of A Pickup are:
A.that the speed of the pickup exceed 35 mph
B.that the child occupying the bed is under 18 years of age in a parade
C.that the child is not a relative of the vehicle's operator
D.that the child riding in the bed is under 18 years of age and the operator exceeded 35 mph
9.1.15


273. The maximum allowable speed on a public beach is ______ mph.
A.15
B.20
C.25
D.30
E.there are no restrictions on speed on a public beach
9.1.14


274. Children under ________ of age are required to be in safety seats.
A.1 year
B.2 years
C.5 years
D.7 years


275. ____________ means every vehicle which is self-propelled and every vehicle which is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated on rails.
A.vehicle
B.motor vehicle
C.motorcycle
D.car
E.automobile
9.1.1


276.
R-12 2.2.2A

__________ is the entire width between the boundary lines of every way publicly maintained when any part thereof is open to the use of the public for purposes of vehicular travel.
A.street or highway
B.roadway
C.laned roadway
D.freeway
E.none of the above answer the question
9.1.3



277. Which of the following is not true? The driver of an authorized emergency vehicle may:
A.exceed the maximum speed limits so long as he does not endanger life or property
B.proceed past a red or stop signal or stop sign without slowing down
C.disregard regulations governing direction of movement or turning in specified directions
D.park or stand, irrespective of the provisions of the statutes pertaining to this
E.none of the above is true
9.1.16


278. Which of the following circumstances require that a driver not stop at a railroad grade crossing?
A.an approaching train is plainly visible and is in hazardous proximity to such crossing
B.a clearly visible electric or mechanical device gives warning of the immediate approach of a train
C.a crossing gate is lowered, or when a human flag men gives or continues to give a signal of the approach or passage of a train
D.a railroad engine approaching within a approximately fifteen (1500) feet of the of the highway crossing emits a signal audible from such distance and by reason of its speed or nearness to such crossing is an immediate hazard
E.a police officer or a traffic-control signal directs traffic to proceed
9.1.12


279. Which of the following is not true regarding Powers of Local Authorities?
A.may regulate the stopping, standing, or parking of vehicles
B.designate any highway as a through highway and require that all vehicles stop or yield before entering or crossing same
C.alter the speed limits authorized by the State of Texas
D.erect or maintain a traffic-control device at any location so as to require the traffic on a State highway to stop or yield before entering or crossing any intersecting highway
E.all of the above are true statements
9.1.6


280. Under which of the following conditions may a person drive a vehicle over an unprotected fire hose laid down on a street to be used at a fire?
A.No person may ever cross any such fire hose.
B.Only to enter the private driveway of one's own residence.
C.Only with the permission of the fire department official in charge.
D.Only with the permission of the police officer directing traffic at such fire emergency
E.None of the above
9.1.15



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